Some of you may have grown up in a church that sang this song, and some of you like me may have never heard of it, let alone some place called Beulah Land.
This is largely because I use the Revised Standard Version most of the time. Which we explain in, (Which Bible Translation?)
Both translations make some since however if one is transliterating a proper noun, should they not have transliterated all the proper nouns? The KJV did not transliterate Forsaken which would be ‘azavbah. One must admit that is a bit of a mouth twister for an English speaker. The next noun is Desolate and that would be shemamah in Hebrew.
Thou shalt no more be termed Forsaken; neither shall thy land any more be termed Desolate: but thou shalt be called Hephzibah, and thy land Beulah: for the LORD delighteth in thee, and thy land shall be married. Is 62:4 KJV
You shall no more be termed Forsaken, and your land shall no more be termed Desolate; but you shall be called My delight is in her, and your land Married; for the LORD delights in you, and your land shall be married. Is. 62:4 RSV
In the end, the meaning is that those who follow God will not live in the land of Old Maids, Divorcees, or Widows. They have been living in a barren foreign land in a desolate condition. But our Lover sees in us His delight, and we shall no longer be forsaken but rather be married, crossing into the land of Married for our King delights in us.
Let us rejoice and exult and give him the glory, for the marriage of the Lamb has come, and his Bride has made herself ready; Rev. 19:7
The Song of Songs 